Back to Problems

erdos_299

Specification

Is there an infinite sequence $a_1 < a_2 < \dots$ such that $a_{i+1} - a_i = O(1)$ and no finite sum of $\frac{1}{a_i}$ is equal to 1?

Actions

Submit a Proof

Have a proof attempt? Submit it for zero-trust verification.

Submit Proof
Lean 4 Statement
theorem erdos_299 : answer(False) ↔ (∃ (a : ℕ → ℕ),
    StrictMono a ∧ (∀ n, 0 < a n) ∧
    (fun n ↦ (a (n + 1) : ℝ) - a n) =O[atTop] (1 : ℕ → ℝ) ∧
    ∀ S : Finset ℕ, ∑ i ∈ S, (1 : ℝ) / a i ≠ 1)
ID: ErdosProblems__299__erdos_299
Browse 300 unsolved math conjectures formalized in Lean 4
Browse

All Problems

Explore all 300 unsolved conjectures.

View problems →
ASI Prize documentation for formal verification pipeline
Docs

Verification Pipeline

How zero-trust verification works.

Read docs →
Evaluation Results

Recent Submissions

No submissions yet. Be the first to attempt this problem.