erdos_12.parts.iii

Let $A$ be an infinite set such that there are no distinct $a,b,c \in A$ such that $a \mid (b+c)$ and $b,c > a$. Is it true that $∑_{n \in A} \frac{1}{n} < \infty$?

theorem erdos_12.parts.iii :
    answer(sorry) ↔ ∀ (A : Set ℕ), IsGood A → Summable (fun (n : A) ↦ (1 / n : ℝ))

Recent Submissions

No submissions yet. Be the first to attempt this problem.