erdos_1137

Let $d_n=p_{n+1}-p_n$, where $p_n$ denotes the $n$th prime. Is it true that $$\frac{\max_{n < x}d_{n}d_{n-1}}{(\max_{n < x}d_n)^2}\to 0$$ as $x\to \infty$?

theorem erdos_1137 :
    answer(sorry) ↔
     Tendsto (fun x ↦
        (((range x).sup (fun n ↦ (primeGap n) * (primeGap (n - 1))) : ℕ) : ℝ) /
        (((range x).sup primeGap : ℕ) : ℝ) ^ 2) atTop (𝓝 0)

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