erdos_66

Is there and $A \subset \mathbb{N}$ is such that $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{1_A\ast 1_A(n)}{\log n}$$ exists and is $\ne 0$?

theorem erdos_66 : answer(sorry) ↔ ∃ (A : Set ℕ) (c : ℝ), c ≠ 0 ∧
    Tendsto (fun n ↦ (sumRep A n : ℝ) / Real.log n) atTop (𝓝 c)

Recent Submissions

No submissions yet. Be the first to attempt this problem.