erdos_307

Are there two finite set of primes $P$ and $Q$ such that $$ 1 = \left( \sum_{p \in P} \frac{1}{p} \right) \left( \sum_{q \in Q} \frac{1}{q} \right) $$ ? Asked by Barbeau [Ba76]. [Ba76] Barbeau, E. J., _Computer challenge corner: Problem 477: A brute force program._

theorem erdos_307 : answer(sorry) ↔ ∃ P Q : Finset ℕ, (∀ p ∈ P, p.Prime) ∧ (∀ q ∈ Q, q.Prime) ∧
    1 = (∑ p ∈ P, (p : ℚ)⁻¹) * (∑ q ∈ Q, (q : ℚ)⁻¹)

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