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erdos_1072a

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Is it true that there are infinitely many $p$ for which $f(p) = p − 1$?

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Lean 4 Statement 
theorem erdos_1072a : answer(sorry) ↔ Set.Infinite {p | p.Prime ∧ f p = p - 1}
ID: ErdosProblems__1072__erdos_1072a
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